Verified CPHIMS dumps Q&As - Pass Guarantee Exam Dumps Test Engine [2026]
CPHIMS dumps and 102 unique questions
NEW QUESTION # 30
Allocation of resource hours for a new software implementation should be included in the
- A. project management plan.
- B. stakeholder agreement.
- C. product roadmap.
- D. implementation plan.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Allocation of resource hours belongs in the project management plan because this document defines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. A core component of project management is resource planning , which specifies staffing requirements, role assignments, time commitments, effort estimates, and workload distribution across project phases (e.g., design, build, testing, training, go-live, and stabilization).
The project management plan integrates scope, schedule, cost, risk, communications, and resource management into a structured framework that ensures the project remains within constraints.
While an implementation plan outlines the sequence of activities and tasks needed to deploy the software, it does not typically detail comprehensive resource allocation governance. A stakeholder agreement documents roles, responsibilities, and high-level commitments but does not function as the operational resource tracking document. A product roadmap is a strategic planning artifact that shows future enhancements and milestones over time; it is not designed to manage detailed labor allocation.
In healthcare IT implementations-where clinician time, IT analysts, trainers, interface specialists, and support staff must be carefully coordinated-clear documentation of allocated hours in the project management plan is essential to control scope, prevent burnout, and ensure accountability.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Protocol and integration of an oncology Electronic Medical Record (EMR) with a hospital electronic health record system is an example of which of the following?
- A. Telehealth.
- B. Patient portal.
- C. Health Information Exchange.
- D. Interoperability.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Integrating an oncology EMR with a hospital EHR using defined protocols is an example of interoperability because it focuses on the ability of two different health information systems to communicate, exchange data, and use the information that has been exchanged . In practice, oncology care often involves specialized workflows (chemotherapy ordering, regimen management, infusion documentation, staging, tumor markers) that may be supported by a dedicated oncology system. When that system is integrated with the enterprise EHR, key data such as medication orders, allergies, lab results, problem lists, care plans, and treatment summaries can flow between systems to support coordinated care, reduce duplicate entry, and improve safety (e.g., ensuring the hospital record reflects high-risk oncology medications and related monitoring requirements).
This scenario is not best described as Health Information Exchange (HIE) , which typically refers to exchanging health information across organizations or through regional/national exchange networks. It is also not telehealth , which is care delivery at a distance, nor a patient portal , which is a patient-facing access tool. The core concept here is system-to-system integration enabling data exchange and usability- therefore, interoperability is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 32
What type of diagram illustrates how artifacts in a database are associated with one another?
- A. Entity relationship.
- B. Data flow.
- C. Pareto.
- D. Fishbone.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An Entity Relationship (ER) diagram illustrates how data elements (entities) within a database relate to one another. In healthcare information and management systems, ER diagrams are foundational tools used during system design, data modeling, and database development. They visually represent entities (such as Patient, Encounter, Provider, Order, or Medication), their attributes (e.g., patient ID, date of birth), and the relationships between them (such as one-to-many or many-to-many relationships).
For example, a Patient entity may have a one-to-many relationship with Encounters, and an Encounter may have a one-to-many relationship with Orders. These structured relationships ensure data integrity, minimize redundancy, and support accurate reporting and interoperability across healthcare systems. ER diagrams are critical when designing EHR databases, analytics repositories, and integration architectures because they clarify how information is logically structured and linked.
The other options serve different purposes. A Pareto diagram is used in quality improvement to prioritize issues based on frequency or impact. A data flow diagram (DFD) illustrates how data moves between processes and systems, not how data is relationally structured in a database. A fishbone diagram (Ishikawa) supports root cause analysis. Therefore, the correct answer is Entity relationship , as it specifically describes associations between database artifacts.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Digital health apps and fitness tracking devices can add patients' health data to their Electronic Health Records (EHR) by using a(n):
- A. Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).
- B. Application Programming Interface (API).
- C. Virtual Desktop Machine (VDM).
- D. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI).
Answer: B
Explanation:
An Application Programming Interface (API) is the standard technology mechanism that allows digital health apps and consumer fitness devices to exchange data with an EHR in a controlled, automated way.
APIs define the rules for how one software system can request data from, or send data to, another system- typically using secure authentication, authorization, and standardized data formats. In modern healthcare interoperability, APIs enable patient-generated health data (PGHD) such as heart rate, activity, sleep, glucose readings, and blood pressure measurements to flow into clinical systems where it can be reviewed, trended, and incorporated into care plans. This approach supports patient engagement and more continuous monitoring beyond traditional clinical visits.
The other options do not fit this function. CUI is a U.S. government information classification concept and is not a data exchange method for EHR integration. EDI is primarily used for structured business transactions (such as eligibility checks and claims submissions) rather than streaming wellness-device metrics into clinical records. VDM (virtual desktop) is a way to deliver a desktop computing environment remotely; it does not provide a standardized pathway for device/app data ingestion into an EHR. Therefore, the best answer is API .
NEW QUESTION # 34
An IT director is in negotiations to purchase a new system. Which of the following is the BEST document to ensure the product and services are delivered?
- A. Purchase order.
- B. Statement of work.
- C. Project charter.
- D. Request for proposal.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Statement of Work (SOW) is the best document to ensure a vendor delivers the promised product and services because it defines, in enforceable detail, what will be delivered, how it will be delivered, when it will be delivered, and how delivery will be validated . In healthcare IT procurements, a strong SOW typically includes scope and deliverables (software modules, interfaces, conversion, training), roles and responsibilities, timelines and milestones, testing requirements, acceptance criteria, service levels, security/privacy obligations, documentation, and support arrangements. It also specifies assumptions, constraints, change- control processes, and often links payments to measurable deliverables-creating accountability and reducing ambiguity during implementation.
An RFP is used earlier to solicit vendor proposals and compare solutions; it helps select a vendor but does not by itself ensure delivery. A purchase order authorizes purchase and references quantities and pricing, but it usually lacks the implementation detail and acceptance criteria needed to manage complex clinical system deployments. A project charter authorizes the project internally by defining objectives, governance, and high- level scope, but it is not the primary vendor-delivery control instrument. Therefore, the SOW is the most effective procurement artifact for ensuring that both the technology and the associated professional services are delivered as agreed.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following technologies directly reduces adverse medication events through the use of additional checks and balances in the clinical information system?
- A. Wearable devices.
- B. Medication diversion management.
- C. Bar coded medication administration (BCMA).
- D. Electronic Medical Record (EMR).
Answer: C
Explanation:
Bar coded medication administration (BCMA) is specifically designed to reduce medication administration errors by adding real-time, system-enforced verification steps at the point of care. In a typical BCMA workflow, clinicians scan the patient's identification band and the medication barcode; the clinical information system then confirms whether the medication aligns with the active order and key safety checks (commonly framed as the "five rights": right patient, drug, dose, route, and time). If there is a mismatch- wrong patient, wrong medication, wrong dose, or wrong timing-the system can generate an alert and block or discourage administration until the discrepancy is resolved. This creates the "additional checks and balances" referenced in the question and is a hallmark of closed-loop medication administration processes.
By contrast, wearable devices primarily support monitoring and patient-generated data, medication diversion management focuses on controlled-substance oversight and security, and an EMR is a broad platform that may enable safety tools but does not inherently provide bedside barcode verification unless paired with BCMA functionality. HIMSS informatics guidance explicitly describes BCMA as hardware/software used to electronically verify these "five rights," directly supporting reduction of medication-related errors at administration.
NEW QUESTION # 36
The BEST format for reporting overall enterprise performance, grouped in major dimensions, to hospital leadership is a:
- A. Gantt chart.
- B. Pareto analysis.
- C. Balanced scorecard.
- D. Pie chart.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Balanced Scorecard is the best format for reporting overall enterprise performance to hospital leadership because it organizes performance metrics into major strategic dimensions , typically including financial performance, customer/patient perspective, internal processes, and learning and growth (workforce and innovation). This structured framework aligns operational performance with strategic objectives and provides a comprehensive view rather than focusing on a single metric or short-term result.
Hospital executives require visibility into multiple domains simultaneously-quality and safety indicators, patient satisfaction, operational efficiency, financial stability, workforce engagement, and regulatory compliance. The balanced scorecard allows leadership to see how improvements (or declines) in one domain affect others, supporting strategic decision-making and accountability. It also promotes goal alignment across departments by linking metrics to enterprise strategy.
In contrast, a Pareto analysis identifies the most significant contributing factors to a problem but does not provide a comprehensive performance overview. A Gantt chart is used for project timeline tracking. A pie chart shows proportional distribution but lacks multidimensional strategic context. Therefore, the balanced scorecard is the most appropriate tool for summarizing enterprise-level performance in healthcare organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 37
A committee is assessing whether the currently installed products and services are available as cloud-based product offerings. Which of the following should the committee pursue FIRST?
- A. Request for Proposal.
- B. End-user focus group.
- C. Request for Information.
- D. Vendor demonstration.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a committee is in the early exploratory phase-specifically determining whether existing products and services are available as cloud-based offerings-the appropriate first step is issuing a Request for Information (RFI) . An RFI is designed to gather high-level information about vendor capabilities, deployment models (e.
g., SaaS, PaaS), hosting environments, security certifications, scalability, pricing structures, migration options, and roadmap alignment. It helps the organization understand the current market landscape before committing to a formal procurement process.
A vendor demonstration is premature because demonstrations typically occur after narrowing the field to qualified vendors and defining functional requirements. A Request for Proposal (RFP) is more detailed and used when the organization has clearly defined requirements and is prepared to evaluate formal bids. Issuing an RFP without first understanding available cloud options may lead to incomplete or misaligned requirements. An end-user focus group may help assess workflow needs, but it does not determine whether vendors offer viable cloud-based alternatives.
Therefore, the RFI is the correct first step because it supports informed decision-making, market research, and strategic planning before advancing to demonstrations or formal procurement processes.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A community-based healthcare organization has implemented a new electronic drug prescribing system that allows prescribers to access the complete current drug profile of their patients. From a quality of care perspective, which indicator will MOST likely be used to measure the success of the implementation?
- A. Patient and provider satisfaction.
- B. Productivity improvements and reduced drug costs.
- C. System adoption by care providers.
- D. Reduction in adverse events and drug abuse.
Answer: D
Explanation:
From a quality-of-care perspective, the most meaningful measure of success for an electronic prescribing (e- prescribing) system that provides access to a complete current medication profile is the reduction in adverse events and drug abuse . The primary clinical purpose of such systems is to improve medication safety by enabling prescribers to review allergies, drug-drug interactions, duplicate therapies, contraindications, and controlled substance histories before issuing prescriptions.
Clinical informatics principles emphasize outcome-based evaluation when assessing health IT effectiveness.
While satisfaction (Option A), productivity and cost reduction (Option B), and adoption rates (Option C) are important operational or implementation metrics, they do not directly measure improvements in patient safety or quality of care. True quality indicators focus on measurable clinical outcomes-such as decreased adverse drug events (ADEs), fewer medication errors, reduced inappropriate prescribing, and better monitoring of controlled substances.
By giving prescribers comprehensive medication visibility, the system helps prevent harmful interactions, overprescribing, and misuse. Therefore, the strongest quality-focused indicator of success would be a demonstrated reduction in adverse drug events and drug abuse , aligning with healthcare informatics goals of improving patient safety and clinical outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 39
A department has provided a list of suggested enhancements to its primary system. Which of the following is the BEST method to prioritize these enhancements?
- A. Identify frequency of problems from a service desk log review.
- B. Organize the list of enhancements based on IT resource requirements.
- C. Conduct a cost/benefit analysis of enhancement options.
- D. Group enhancements into major categories.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best method to prioritize enhancement requests is to conduct a cost/benefit analysis because it provides an objective, decision-oriented way to compare competing options using consistent criteria. In healthcare information systems management, enhancements compete for limited analyst time, testing capacity, training bandwidth, and change windows-so prioritization must consider not only effort but also measurable value .
A cost/benefit analysis evaluates expected benefits such as improved patient safety, reduced clinical risk, compliance impact, productivity gains, reduced turnaround time, better charge capture, lower support burden, and improved user satisfaction, then weighs them against costs such as implementation effort, licensing, interface work, workflow redesign, training time, downtime risk, and ongoing maintenance. This approach supports governance transparency and aligns investment with organizational strategy and outcomes.
The other options can inform prioritization but are not sufficient alone. Organizing by IT resource requirements (A) risks prioritizing what is easiest rather than what delivers the greatest value or risk reduction. Service desk frequency (B) highlights pain points, but high-frequency issues may be low impact, while low-frequency issues can be high severity (e.g., safety or regulatory). Grouping into categories (C) helps organize discussion but does not rank options. Therefore, cost/benefit analysis is the strongest method for rational, defensible prioritization.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is a disadvantage to fully customizing a system to current organizational workflow?
- A. Prevents implementing future system upgrades.
- B. Increases the time and cost of the implementation process.
- C. Makes regulatory compliance more challenging.
- D. Minimizes end-user training requirements.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fully customizing a healthcare information system to match an organization's current workflow can create long-term operational risk because extensive customization often becomes tightly coupled to a specific vendor version and technical architecture. As vendors release upgrades, patches, and new features (often driven by patient-safety improvements, interoperability requirements, cybersecurity fixes, and regulatory updates), heavily customized environments typically require significant rework, retesting, and validation to ensure the custom components still function correctly. This can delay or effectively block timely upgrades, leaving the organization on older versions that may lack critical security patches or updated functionality.
While customization may reduce training needs in the short term by preserving familiar workflows (making option A an advantage), the upgrade burden is a classic downside: custom code, custom interfaces, and non- standard configurations increase maintenance complexity and can break during version changes. Over time, this can raise total cost of ownership and reduce agility, especially when the organization needs to adopt new standards, integrate additional systems, or support new care models. Therefore, the most direct and strategically significant disadvantage listed is the inability (or practical difficulty) of implementing future system upgrades, captured best by option C .
NEW QUESTION # 41
After a new pharmacy dispensing system is implemented, issues are reported regarding pharmacies not being able to process prescriptions that were received before the cutover to the new system. Which testing phase could have identified this issue?
- A. Acceptance testing.
- B. Unit testing.
- C. Regression testing.
- D. System integration testing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Acceptance testing (User Acceptance Testing/UAT) is the testing phase most likely to identify an inability to process prescriptions that existed before cutover , because UAT validates that the solution supports real operational workflows and business requirements under conditions that mirror production use. A key go-live risk in pharmacy system replacement is data conversion and continuity of care : prescriptions entered in the legacy system prior to cutover must be accessible and actionable in the new environment (e.g., visible in work queues, eligible for verification, dispensing, labeling, adjudication, and documentation). In well-designed acceptance testing, users execute scripted scenarios that include "pre-cutover" items-converted orders, historical prescriptions, and in-flight work-specifically to confirm that the new system can safely continue processing without interruption.
By comparison, unit testing focuses on individual components and would not validate end-to-end prescription processing across converted legacy data. System integration testing emphasizes interfaces between systems (e.
g., EHR-to-pharmacy, claims, automation) but may not adequately validate business readiness with converted pre-cutover prescriptions unless explicitly included. Regression testing checks that changes did not break previously working functions, but it is not the primary phase for validating cutover continuity. Therefore, acceptance testing is the best answer.
NEW QUESTION # 42
A software program that converts audio analog to a digital signal for dictation is:
- A. Voice recognition software.
- B. Voice response system software.
- C. Text to speech software.
- D. Virtual reality software.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Voice recognition software (also called speech recognition) is used in clinical documentation workflows to capture spoken dictation and convert it into a digital form that the system can process-typically producing text and/or a digital dictation file that can be stored, edited, and routed within the EHR or transcription workflow. In healthcare settings, clinicians often dictate notes, operative reports, and discharge summaries.
Voice recognition technology digitizes the spoken input and applies recognition algorithms to transform speech into structured text, supporting faster documentation turnaround and improved availability of clinical notes.
By contrast, text-to-speech converts written text into spoken audio output (the reverse direction). A voice response system (interactive voice response/IVR) is primarily used for telephone-based automated menus and information capture (e.g., appointment reminders or patient self-service), not clinician dictation. Virtual reality software supports immersive simulation or training environments and is unrelated to converting dictation audio for documentation.
From a clinical informatics perspective, voice recognition is important because it can reduce reliance on manual transcription, speed documentation completion, and support more timely information availability for care teams-provided it is implemented with quality controls to manage recognition errors and maintain documentation accuracy.
NEW QUESTION # 43
What public health benefit can be derived from data collected from social media and internet search engines?
- A. Improved statistical analysis.
- B. The revelation of associations and patterns.
- C. Increased data visualization.
- D. The discovery of semi-structured and structured data types.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data from social media and internet search engines can provide a public health benefit through the revelation of associations and patterns (Option D). These data sources are often high-volume, rapidly generated, and reflective of real-time behaviors-such as symptom searching, discussions of illness, medication side effects, or concerns about local outbreaks. When analyzed appropriately, they can help identify emerging trends , detect unusual clusters of symptoms, and signal potential outbreaks earlier than traditional reporting pathways that depend on clinical visits, laboratory confirmation, and formal case reporting. Pattern and association discovery is a core capability of analytics and informatics: mining large datasets to find relationships (e.g., increases in searches for "fever and cough" correlated with rising influenza-like illness) and temporal
/geographic trends that support situational awareness and targeted interventions.
The other options are less directly tied to a public health "benefit." Data visualization (A) and statistical analysis (B) are methods that can be applied to many datasets but do not describe the specific actionable value derived from these unconventional sources. Discovering data types (C) is a technical characterization and not a direct public health outcome. In contrast, identifying patterns and associations can inform earlier surveillance, resource planning, risk communication, and focused prevention strategies-making D the best answer.
NEW QUESTION # 44
During the requirements phase of an implementation project, the consulting team discovers a gap that is critical to the success of the project; however, it involves additional cost and resources. What step would be performed by the project manager to address this?
- A. Include activities in the change management plan to ensure the gap is communicated and understood by staff and resources on the program.
- B. Update the cost and timeline of activities and notify the downstream impact to the stakeholders.
- C. Create a change request and ensure review and approval from the key stakeholders and sponsors.
- D. Conduct stakeholder interviews to understand the challenges due to the gap identified.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Within healthcare information system implementations, formal governance and structured change control are essential components of effective project management. When a critical gap is identified during the requirements phase-particularly one that affects scope, cost, or resource allocation-the appropriate action is to initiate a formal change request process . This ensures that the proposed modification is documented, evaluated, and reviewed through established governance channels before execution.
Creating a change request allows the project manager to formally define the scope impact, cost implications, resource adjustments, timeline changes, risks, and expected benefits. The request is then submitted to key stakeholders, sponsors, or a steering committee for structured review and approval. This aligns with healthcare IT governance best practices, which emphasize transparency, accountability, and executive oversight-especially when budget or strategic objectives are affected.
Option A relates to organizational change management but does not address scope or funding authorization.
Option B assumes approval and prematurely adjusts baseline plans without formal authorization. Option D may be useful earlier during gap analysis but does not resolve funding or approval requirements.
Healthcare Information and Management Systems governance principles stress that scope, cost, and resource changes must follow formal change control procedures , making option C the correct and most compliant response.
NEW QUESTION # 45
To improve patient safety and reduce the rate of medication administration errors, implementation of which of the following types of clinical systems or modules should have the GREATEST immediate impact?
- A. CPOE.
- B. EMR.
- C. CDSS.
- D. BCMA.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Bar coded medication administration (BCMA) has the greatest immediate impact on reducing medication administration errors because it places an electronic safety check directly at the point where the medication is given to the patient. BCMA requires scanning the patient identifier (e.g., wristband) and the medication barcode, then automatically verifying the match against the active medication order and the scheduled administration time. This creates a real-time "stop-and-check" mechanism that prevents or interrupts common administration errors such as wrong patient, wrong drug, wrong dose, wrong time, and in many implementations, wrong route. Because the control is applied at bedside (or point of administration), improvements are often seen quickly once workflows and scanning compliance stabilize.
An EMR is a broad record platform that can contain many tools, but by itself it does not guarantee bedside verification. CPOE primarily reduces prescribing and transcription errors earlier in the medication-use process; its benefits are substantial but are not as directly tied to administration errors as BCMA. CDSS can reduce errors via alerts and guidance, yet its effectiveness depends heavily on rule design and can be limited by alert fatigue; it also does not inherently verify the medication in-hand at the bedside. Therefore, BCMA is the best choice for the greatest immediate reduction in medication administration errors.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Effective health information exchange requires:
- A. Transcription software efficiency.
- B. Clinical decision support.
- C. Master Patient Index accuracy.
- D. Remote patient monitoring.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Effective health information exchange (HIE) fundamentally depends on accurate patient identification , which is achieved through a reliable Master Patient Index (MPI) . An MPI is a core component of interoperability infrastructure that maintains unique identifiers for patients across different systems and organizations. When health data is exchanged between hospitals, clinics, laboratories, and other entities, the receiving system must correctly match the incoming data to the appropriate patient record. Without accurate patient matching, there is significant risk of duplicate records, overlay errors (information assigned to the wrong patient), incomplete clinical histories, and potential patient safety events.
Remote patient monitoring and clinical decision support are valuable digital health capabilities, but they are not foundational requirements for HIE functionality. Transcription software efficiency relates to documentation workflow and does not directly impact cross-organizational data exchange. In contrast, MPI accuracy ensures that demographic data elements-such as name, date of birth, address, and other identifiers-are properly reconciled to support safe and reliable interoperability.
Within healthcare information systems management, strong MPI governance, standardized demographic data capture, and ongoing data quality monitoring are essential best practices. Therefore, Master Patient Index accuracy is the critical requirement for effective health information exchange.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following is a benefit of Telehealth?
- A. Increases reimbursement.
- B. Improves decision making.
- C. Removes geographic barriers.
- D. Fosters collaboration.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A primary, well-established benefit of telehealth is that it removes geographic barriers by enabling patients and clinicians to connect without needing to be in the same physical location. This expands access to care for people in rural or underserved areas, those with limited transportation, mobility challenges, or time constraints, and patients who need specialty services not available locally. Telehealth supports care delivery across distance for activities such as follow-up visits, chronic disease check-ins, behavioral health sessions, medication management, and post-discharge monitoring, helping patients receive timely care and reducing missed appointments.
While telehealth can also support collaboration (for example, specialist consults with local teams) and may contribute to better clinical decisions when it increases access to expertise or patient data, those outcomes are not as universally direct as the core access advantage. "Increases reimbursement" is not an inherent benefit of telehealth because reimbursement depends on payer policies, regulations, service type, and documentation requirements; in some contexts reimbursement may be equal, lower, or subject to restrictions. Therefore, the most consistently correct benefit among the options is the reduction of geographic barriers to healthcare access.
NEW QUESTION # 48
A healthcare organization's Chief Information Officer (CIO) can ensure that computer systems adhere to regulatory standards by
- A. auditing systems against industry compliance standards.
- B. modifying vendor-supplied software with standards-based program changes.
- C. relying on end-user departments to inform the CIO of regulatory changes.
- D. requesting that the compliance officer review regulatory upgrades.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most effective way for a CIO to ensure computer systems adhere to regulatory standards is auditing systems against industry compliance standards . Auditing provides a formal, repeatable mechanism to confirm that required controls are not only designed but also implemented and operating effectively . In healthcare IT, this includes assessing access controls, authentication practices, audit logging, data retention, encryption, backup/recovery, change management, and incident response-controls that map to regulatory obligations and accepted frameworks. Regular audits also produce documentation and evidence (policies, configurations, logs, test results) needed for governance and external scrutiny, and they reveal gaps early so corrective actions can be prioritized and tracked.
Option A is weak governance because it depends on informal communication from departments rather than a structured compliance monitoring program. Option B helps, but delegating review to a compliance officer alone does not ensure technical controls are actually configured and functioning across systems-CIO accountability requires verification. Option D is risky because modifying vendor-supplied software can violate support agreements, complicate validation, and introduce new defects; compliance is typically achieved through configuration, controls, and vendor-managed updates , not custom code changes. Therefore, systematic auditing is the strongest CIO-led method to ensure adherence.
NEW QUESTION # 49
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